Let me first start by saying that your Russian language imposition argument is the lamest argument I have ever read. Are implying that Spain occupied Catalonia? If so, please let us know when and how...please, enlighten us. And be a little more original than that Philip V crap (excuse my French, or shall I say Catalan?).
Furthermore, Spain is a full democracy, recognized both by the EU and the UN. Read the Treaties of the EU. If, in your view, Catalonia is not free, might it be for the lack of freedom of its citizens to choose even the language they want to use?
Spanish has always (and I repeat, always) been one of the languages of Catalonia since it has existed as a recognized territorial entity. [+]